3rd May 2025-Current Affairs

1. Study Notes: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) – Polity

Why in News?

• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has significantly increased action under the PMLA since 2014.
• In 2024–25, the ED initiated 775 new investigations and filed 333 prosecution complaints under the Act.
• Indicates an aggressive institutional approach to tackling economic offences in India.

Overview of the PMLA

Key Provisions of the PMLA

Section 3 – Definition of Money Laundering

Involves any attempt to conceal, possess, acquire, use, or project criminal proceeds as legitimate.

Example: A drug trafficker invests illegal income into a hotel business and claims it as legal profit – this is money laundering.

Amendments

• 2009 & 2012 Amendments:
  • Expanded the list of scheduled offences (predicate offences).
  • Strengthened ED’s powers (search, seizure, arrest, attachment of property).
  • Enhanced coordination with other financial and investigative agencies.

Institutional Framework Under the PMLA

Compliance Obligations

• Banks, financial institutions, and intermediaries must:
  • Verify client identity (KYC norms).
  • Maintain records of transactions.
  • Report suspicious transactions to the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

International Cooperation

• PMLA enables:
  • Treaties, MoUs, and bilateral agreements for international legal assistance.
  • Asset tracing and repatriation in cross-border financial crimes.

Recent Enforcement Developments

• ED’s activities under PMLA have grown post-2014 due to:
  • Increased political and legal will.
  • Better inter-agency coordination.
  • Rising economic offences linked to corruption, narcotics, terrorism financing.

Related Acts and Focus Areas (2025)

FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)

• Increasing focus in 2025 on foreign exchange violations.
• ED has the power to investigate unauthorized foreign transactions and hawala cases.

Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018

• Targets individuals who flee India to avoid prosecution.
• 24 individuals declared fugitives.
• Assets worth ₹900+ crore confiscated to date.

Summary:

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), enacted in 2003, aims to curb the process of converting illegal funds into legal assets. It empowers the Enforcement Directorate (ED) to investigate, attach, and confiscate properties linked to money laundering. With amendments in 2009 and 2012, the Act’s scope widened, incorporating more predicate offences and enhancing enforcement. The PMLA also supports international cooperation, mandates financial transparency, and aligns with laws like FEMA and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act to tackle complex economic crimes. In 2024–25, there has been a sharp rise in PMLA cases, reflecting India’s intensified efforts against financial crime.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. Consider the following statements about the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2003:
1.It defines money laundering as only the direct involvement in handling proceeds of crime.
2.The Enforcement Directorate is the nodal agency for investigating cases under the Act.
3.PMLA applies only to crimes listed in the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A . 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It includes both direct and indirect involvement.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It applies to a broader range of offences, not limited to IPC.

2. Under the PMLA, who is responsible for confirming the attachment of properties by the ED?
A. CBI
B. Supreme Court
C. Adjudicating Authority
D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C. Adjudicating Authority

Mains :

1. Discuss the significance of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in strengthening India’s financial regulatory framework. How effective has its implementation been in combating economic offences? (250 words)

2. Examine the role of international cooperation under the PMLA in tackling transnational financial crimes. In what ways does the Act complement other legislations like FEMA and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act? (250 words)

2. Study Notes: Private Member’s Bill (PMB) – Polity

Why in News?

• The Vice President of India has called Private Member’s Bills a “gold mine” for legislative innovation, underlining their potential to bring progressive, people-centric laws.
• Despite their low success rate, PMBs serve as vital instruments for raising public issues and influencing debate.

What is a Private Member’s Bill (PMB)?

Time Allocation in Parliament

Historical Record & Trends

Significance of PMBs

1. Democratic Participation:
   Allows non-minister MPs, especially from the Opposition, to raise public concerns.
2. Legislative Innovation:
   Some PMBs have later formed the basis of Government Bills (e.g., Transgender Persons’ Rights, Rights of Persons with Disabilities).
3. Ideological Expression:
   MPs can voice party ideologies and constituents’ demands.
4. Policy Influence:
   Even if not passed, PMBs often shape public discourse and pressure the government to act.

Challenges Faced by PMBs

• Lack of Time: Government business is prioritized; limited time set aside for PMBs.
• Low Passage Rate: PMBs rarely passed; seen as symbolic more than substantive.
• Disruptions in Parliament: Political deadlocks prevent meaningful discussion.
• Bureaucratic Apathy: Ministries don’t support them as they are not official bills.

Important Examples of PMBs Passed

Summary:

A Private Member’s Bill (PMB) is a legislative proposal introduced by an MP who is not a Minister. It offers a platform for individual MPs to raise issues, propose new laws, or amend existing legislation. Though seen as a tool for parliamentary democracy and innovation, PMBs face significant hurdles — limited time, political disruptions, and lack of government support. Since Independence, only 14 PMBs have become law, with the last one passed in 1970. Despite their limited legislative success, PMBs contribute significantly to policy debates and public discourse, often influencing official policy and future government legislation.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. With reference to Private Member’s Bills in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.A Private Member’s Bill can be introduced by any MP who is not holding the office of a Minister.
2.Private Member’s Bills require prior approval of the concerned Ministry before introduction.
3.PMBs are generally introduced on Fridays in both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

• Statement 2 is incorrect: No ministry approval is needed.

2. How many Private Member’s Bills have been passed by the Indian Parliament and received Presidential assent since Independence?
A. 4
B. 14
C. 29
D. 0

Answer: B. 14

Mains :

1. Private Member’s Bills play a vital role in strengthening parliamentary democracy, yet their passage rate remains abysmally low. Discuss the relevance of PMBs and suggest measures to enhance their effectiveness in the legislative process. (250 words)

2. Despite being a tool of democratic participation, Private Member’s Bills rarely become law in India. Critically examine the systemic challenges that prevent them from gaining legislative success. (250 words)

3. Understanding SECC 2011 and India’s Caste Census Landscape – Governance

Why in News?

• India has not released disaggregated caste data since the 1931 Census, creating a data vacuum on caste-based demographics.
• Though SECC 2011 collected caste data, the government did not publish it.
• The upcoming Census 2021 (delayed due to COVID-19) is expected to include comprehensive caste enumeration, potentially reshaping welfare policies.

Background: History of Caste Data in Indian Census

What is the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011?

SECC 2011 vs Census 2011 – Key Differences

Why is Caste Data Important?

1. Policy Formulation: Accurate caste data helps design targeted welfare schemes.
2. Resource Allocation: Government budgets and reservations can be aligned with actual socio-economic needs.
3. Social Justice: Ensures inclusivity and equity in public service delivery.
4. Evidence-Based Governance: Enables data-driven decisions, especially in education, employment, and health.
5. Legal and Judicial Support: Helps in judicial review of affirmative action policies.

Challenges with SECC 2011 Caste Data

• Data Errors: Misspellings, duplications, lack of standardized caste classification.
• Verification Difficulties: Over 46 lakh castes reported; difficult to reconcile with official lists.
• Political Sensitivities: Fear of triggering caste-based demands and social unrest.
• Lack of Political Consensus: No unified approach across parties/states on publishing caste data.

The Road Ahead: Census 2021 and Beyond

• Delayed due to pandemic, but expected to include caste-wise enumeration.
• Potentially historic, as it may become the first modern caste census post-1931.
• Could reshape reservation policies, update backward class lists, and support better governance outcomes.

Summary:

India has not published disaggregated caste data since the 1931 Census, leading to a policy vacuum in caste-based governance. Although SECC 2011 aimed to bridge this gap by collecting detailed socio-economic and caste data, the government withheld caste-specific results due to data inconsistencies. Unlike the Census, which only classifies SC/ST groups, SECC aimed for granular caste enumeration. With the upcoming Census 2021 expected to include caste data, there is potential for a major policy shift in welfare targeting, affirmative action, and inclusive governance. Accurate caste data is crucial for evidence-based policymaking in India’s complex social structure.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. Which of the following statements about the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 is correct?
A. It was conducted by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
B. It is a confidential dataset used solely for statistical purposes.
C. It includes detailed caste enumeration and socio-economic data.
D. It replaced the decennial Census of India.

Answer: C . It includes detailed caste enumeration and socio-economic data.

• A is incorrect – SECC was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• B is incorrect – SECC data is used by government departments for scheme targeting.
• D is incorrect – SECC did not replace the regular Census.

2. Consider the following statements:
1.The Census of India has been collecting caste data since 1951.
2.The SECC 2011 caste data was published in the public domain.
3.Census data is confidential and not used for welfare scheme implementation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect – post-1951 censuses only collected SC/ST data, not full caste data.
• Statement 2 is incorrect – caste data from SECC was not released publicly.

Mains :

1. Discuss the significance of disaggregated caste data in India’s policy-making landscape. Why has there been resistance to releasing caste data from the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011? (250 words)

2. With reference to the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, critically analyze its potential and limitations in promoting inclusive governance and social equity in India. (250 words)

4. Study Notes: Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) – Environment

Why in News?

• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI).
• The scheme aims to bring transparency, credibility, and global acceptance to India’s green hydrogen production.
• It supports the broader goals of the National Green Hydrogen Mission and aims to make India a global hub for green hydrogen export.

What is Green Hydrogen?

• Green Hydrogen is hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources (like solar, wind) with minimal or zero greenhouse gas emissions.
• It differs from:
  • Grey hydrogen – produced from fossil fuels.
  • Blue hydrogen – produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture.

Objectives of the GHCI

1. Ensure standardization and credibility in green hydrogen labeling.
2. Enable producers to access carbon markets and international trade.
3. Facilitate tracking of emission intensity to align with climate goals.
4. Attract investments and boost India’s position in the global hydrogen economy.

Key Certification Criteria

Types of Certificates under GHCI

Certificates are issued in multiples of 100 kg of hydrogen.

Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MRV)

• A standardized MRV framework is mandatory.
• Producers must maintain data on production and emissions for at least 5 years.
• Continuous monitoring ensures compliance and auditability.

Compliance and Penalties

• Failure to meet emission thresholds or complete certification steps can lead to:
  • Withdrawal of certificate
  • Denial of access to carbon credits or green branding
• A nominal fee applies only for the Final Certificate.

Global Alignment & Benefits

• Aligned with ISO 19870:2023, making Indian hydrogen exports globally acceptable.
• Enables participation in Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS).
• Boosts investor confidence and opens access to climate finance.

Why GHCI is Important for India

• Supports decarbonization of industries like steel, cement, refining.
• Helps meet India’s climate targets (Net Zero by 2070).
• Positions India in the green energy export market, especially to Europe and Asia.
• Reduces dependency on fossil fuels and enhances energy security.

Summary:

The Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI), launched by the MNRE under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, is a regulatory framework to certify hydrogen as “green” based on strict emission criteria. To be labeled green, hydrogen must generate less than 2 kg CO₂e per kg over 12 months, using renewable energy. The scheme introduces four levels of certification, supports global standardization through ISO 19870:2023, and mandates record-keeping for five years under a strict MRV framework. It enhances investor trust, enables carbon credit access, and strengthens India’s ambitions to become a green hydrogen global leader.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. With reference to the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI), consider the following statements:
1.The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2.Only hydrogen produced using biogenic sources can be labeled as green.
3.Final certificates are issued after verifying emissions data over a 12-month period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme is by MNRE, not MoEFCC.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only non-biogenic emissions are counted; energy must come from renewables.
• Statement 3 is correct.

2. Under India’s Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme, hydrogen is classified as “green” only if:
A. It is produced from biomass-based fuels.
B. It uses carbon capture and storage.
C. Its associated emissions are below 2 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen.
D. It uses fossil fuels with partial offsetting.

Answer: C. Its associated emissions are below 2 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen.

Mains :

1. Discuss the significance of the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) in the context of India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission. How does it enhance environmental governance and promote sustainable energy practices? (250 words)

2. India’s push for green hydrogen reflects its commitment to energy transition and decarbonization. Critically examine the challenges in implementing a credible certification system for green hydrogen. (250 words)

5. Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) – International Relations

Why in News?

• The U.S. Defence Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) has approved a $131 million Foreign Military Sale (FMS) to India.
• The sale includes maritime surveillance technology to support India’s role in the Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative.
• This move strengthens India’s capability in tracking suspicious maritime activity and reinforces its strategic role in the Indo-Pacific.

What is the IPMDA?

• Full Form: Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness
• Launched by: Quad (India, U.S., Japan, Australia) at the Tokyo Summit in May 2022
• Purpose: To enhance real-time maritime surveillance and combat threats like illegal fishing, smuggling, and “dark shipping” in the Indo-Pacific region.

Key Objectives of IPMDA

1. Enhance Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA) among Indo-Pacific nations.
2. Provide real-time intelligence to smaller island and coastal states.
3. Track “dark ships” – vessels that switch off Automatic Identification Systems (AIS) to avoid detection.
4. Monitor strategic sea lanes, ensuring transparency and lawful maritime conduct.
5. Support law enforcement in Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) and counter maritime crime.

Geographical Focus Areas

The IPMDA prioritizes three critical sub-regions:

Technology and Tools Used

• Use of commercial satellite radio frequency (RF) data for tracking vessels.
• Use of SeaVision software – a U.S.-developed system for vessel tracking and coastal surveillance.
• Remote analytics and training to enable partner nations to independently monitor activities.

India’s Role and Benefits

• India is a central stakeholder in the Indian Ocean Region and plays a leadership role in Quad security initiatives.
• With the new FMS-approved technology, India can:
  • Strengthen coastal surveillance
  • Assist smaller regional partners (e.g., Maldives, Sri Lanka)
  • Enhance security of EEZs
  • Respond swiftly to maritime threats such as piracy, smuggling, and trafficking
• This aligns with India’s SAGAR doctrine (Security and Growth for All in the Region).

Strategic Significance of IPMDA

1. Strengthens Quad cooperation in maritime security.
2. Enhances regional transparency and trust among Indo-Pacific nations.
3. Counters the rise of illegal maritime activities, especially in contested waters like the South China Sea.
4. Counters China’s aggressive maritime posture by enabling regional powers to watch their waters more effectively.
5. Promotes rules-based order and freedom of navigation.

Summary:

The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) is a Quad-led initiative launched in May 2022 to strengthen real-time maritime surveillance across the Indo-Pacific. Focused on the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean Region, it employs cutting-edge tools like satellite RF data and SeaVision software to detect illegal maritime activity, including “dark shipping.” A recent $131 million U.S. arms deal enhances India’s surveillance capacity, bolstering its strategic influence in the region. The IPMDA not only strengthens India’s SAGAR initiative, but also contributes to a secure and rules-based Indo-Pacific order.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative:
1.It is a Quad-led initiative launched in 2021 to enhance deep-sea mining capacity.
2.The initiative uses satellite-based RF data to detect vessels attempting to evade tracking.
3.India is excluded from the IPMDA due to non-alignment with the Pacific focus.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A. 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: IPMDA was launched in 2022 and focuses on maritime surveillance, not mining.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: India is a core Quad member and participant.

2. SeaVision software, recently seen in the news, is used for:
A. Coastal defense missile targeting
B. Submarine communication systems
C. Vessel tracking and maritime surveillance
D. Coral reef monitoring

Answer: C. Vessel tracking and maritime surveillance

Mains :

1. India’s involvement in the Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative enhances its maritime diplomacy and regional security profile. Discuss the strategic importance of IPMDA in the context of India’s SAGAR vision. (250 words)

2. The Indo-Pacific region is witnessing increasing maritime competition. Examine how initiatives like the IPMDA can contribute to regional peace, transparency, and maritime rule of law. (250 words)

6. Vizhinjam International Seaport – Economy

Why in News?

• The Prime Minister of India is set to inaugurate the Vizhinjam International Seaport in Kerala, marking a pivotal moment in India’s maritime infrastructure development.
• This is India’s first dedicated transshipment port, aimed at enhancing domestic port capacity and reducing dependency on foreign ports for cargo transfer.

Location and Strategic Importance

• Located in Vizhinjam, near Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala.
• Just 10 nautical miles from key international East-West shipping routes, which handle a majority of global maritime trade.
• Features natural deep-water draft, enabling accommodation of Ultra Large Container Vessels (ULCVs).

Investment and Operation

Advanced Infrastructure & Technology

• AI-Powered Vessel Traffic Management System (VTMS) – a first in India.
• Fully automated yard cranes and remotely operated ship-to-shore cranes.
• Designed for efficient cargo handling with minimal human intervention.

Transshipment Advantag

• Transshipment: Transfer of containers from one vessel to another at a port before final delivery.
• Currently, 75% of India’s transshipment traffic is handled at foreign ports (e.g., Colombo, Singapore, Port Klang), leading to:
  • Loss of foreign exchange
  • Higher logistics costs
  • Longer turnaround times
• Vizhinjam aims to repatriate Indian cargo traffic and become a major regional hub.

Connectivity and Logistics Integration

• Will be developed as a multi-modal logistics hub.
• Connectivity Projects:
  • Upgraded linkage with NH-66 (National Highway).
  • Planned railway extension to integrate with the national rail network.
  • Proximity to Thiruvananthapuram International Airport adds value.

Economic and Strategic Implications

1. Boost to Kerala’s Economy: Employment generation, increased trade, and industrial growth.
2. Reduces Port Congestion: Helps decongest traditional ports like Mumbai, Chennai, and Kochi.
3. Enhances Strategic Depth: Strengthens India’s position in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
4. Improves Global Competitiveness: Aligns with India’s push to become a global trade and logistics hub.

Summary:

Vizhinjam International Seaport, located in Kerala, is India’s first dedicated transshipment port, built under a PPP model at a cost of ₹8,900 crore. With a strategic location near global shipping routes, state-of-the-art AI-driven logistics infrastructure, and deep-water capabilities, it is poised to reclaim India’s transshipment traffic from foreign ports. As part of a broader vision to create a multi-modal logistics hub, the port is expected to boost Kerala’s economy, reduce foreign exchange loss, and enhance India’s maritime trade capacity and strategic footprint.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. Consider the following statements about the Vizhinjam Port:
It is India’s first fully automated inland river port.
It is the first Indian port designed specifically for transshipment of cargo.
It is located near the international East-West shipping route in the Indian Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect – It is a deep-sea port, not an inland river port.

2. Which of the following features is associated with Vizhinjam Port?
A. India’s first LNG terminal
B. First Indian port using AI-powered vessel traffic management system
C. Exclusive fishing port in the Bay of Bengal
D. Inland container depot with cold storage

Answer: B. First Indian port using AI-powered vessel traffic management system

Mains :

1. The development of Vizhinjam Port marks a transformative step in India’s maritime infrastructure. Discuss its significance in reducing India’s dependence on foreign transshipment hubs and boosting national logistics capacity. (250 words)

2. India’s port-led development strategy underlines the role of transshipment hubs. Evaluate the potential of Vizhinjam Port to enhance trade competitiveness and regional economic integration. (250 words)

7. Satavahana Inscriptions Found in Telangana – History & Culture

Why in News?

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has discovered eleven new inscriptions in the Gundaram Reserve Forest in Telangana.
• These inscriptions are associated with the Satavahana period and contain:
  • References to the Haritiputra lineage
  • Religious symbols such as the trident (trishula) and damaru
• These findings offer vital insights into early South Indian religious iconography, dynastic connections, and political geography.

Historical Significance of the Findings

1. Dynastic Connection:
   • Reference to Haritiputra lineage suggests ties between the Satavahanas and the Chutu dynasty (a successor state in the Deccan).
2. Religious Iconography:
   • Presence of trident and damaru suggests early Shaivite symbolism.
   • Marks one of the earliest known instances of such religious symbols in South Indian inscriptions.
3. Geopolitical Insight:
   • Confirms that Telangana was part of the ancient Asmaka Mahajanapada (one of the 16 Mahajanapadas mentioned in Buddhist texts).
   • Supports earlier epigraphic findings from Mukkutraopet and Kotilingala.

The Satavahana Dynasty – Key Highlights

Time Period & Geography

• Post-Mauryan empire (~60 BCE) to ~3rd century CE.
• Ruled over present-day Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and parts of Madhya Pradesh.

Founding and Major Rulers

Art and Architecture

• Patronized the Amaravati School of Art – noted for detailed Buddhist narrative reliefs in white marble.
• Promoted rock-cut architecture, including:
  • Chaityas and Viharas (e.g., Karle, Ajanta)
  • Early forms of stupa art

Economic and Administrative Contributions

• Encouraged Indo-Roman trade; Roman gold coins found in Satavahana territories.
• Supported agriculture and rural economy through irrigation and land grants.
• Introduced a mixed revenue system and issued coins with regional scripts.
• Granted tax-free villages to Brahmins and Buddhist monasteries (Agrahara grants).

Religious and Social Features

• Practiced and promoted Vedic rituals and sacrifices (e.g., Ashvamedha).
• Supported Brahmanical order while also endorsing Buddhism.
• Reinforced the varna system, with Brahmins holding key social roles.
• Presence of matrilineal elements (e.g., mention of mother in royal titles like Gautamiputra).

Military Organization

• Maintained a large standing army:
  • Infantry: 100,000
  • Cavalry: 2,000
  • Elephants: 1,000

Decline of the Satavahana Empire

• After Yajna Sri Satakarni, weakened central authority led to fragmentation.
• Invasions and rise of Shaka-Kshatrapas in western India.
• Feudatory states like Chutus, Ikshvakus, and others filled the power vacuum.

Summary:

The discovery of Satavahana-period inscriptions in Telangana’s Gundaram Reserve Forest by the ASI has enriched our understanding of early Deccan history. These inscriptions, referencing the Haritiputra lineage and containing early Shaivite symbols, confirm Telangana’s place within the ancient Asmaka Mahajanapada. The Satavahana dynasty, emerging after the Mauryas, was a dominant power in the Deccan, known for promoting Brahmanism, Buddhism, and trade with the Romans. They left a significant legacy in art, architecture, and administration, and were among the first to issue inscriptions in Prakrit using Brahmi script.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1.Consider the following statements:
1.The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2.The last Sunga king, Devabhuti, was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva, who usurped the throne.
3.The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D.1, 2 and 3

• Brihadratha was killed by Pushyamitra Sunga, ending the Mauryan line.
• Devabhuti, the last Sunga king, was assassinated by Vasudeva Kanva.
• The Kanvas were overthrown by the early Satavahanas (Andhras).

Mains :

1. Discuss the cultural and economic significance of the Satavahana dynasty in the Deccan region. How did their policies promote religious plurality and maritime trade? (250 words)

2. Recent archaeological discoveries in Telangana have shed new light on the Satavahana presence in the region. Critically examine the role of inscriptions in reconstructing early Deccan history. (250 words)

8. Rishikesh-Karnaprayag Tunnel T-8 – Science and Technology

Why in News?

• The Rishikesh-Karnaprayag Tunnel T-8, part of a larger rail link project in Uttarakhand, is set to become India’s longest railway transportation tunnel at 14.57 km, surpassing Tunnel T-50 (12.77 km) on the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link.

About the Project

Geographical & Strategic Importance

• Location: Runs through the Devprayag–Janasu stretch in Uttarakhand.
• Districts Covered: Dehradun, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal, Rudraprayag, Chamoli.
• Connectivity Impact: Travel time from Rishikesh to Karnaprayag will be reduced from 7 hours to just 2 hours.
• Economic Impact: Boosts tourism, trade, and disaster response capability in Uttarakhand.

Engineering and Technological Innovations

Twin Tunnel System

• Two parallel tunnels for improved safety and operational efficiency.

Tunnel Boring Machines (TBMs)

• First-time use of TBMs in Himalayan rail projects.
• German-imported 2200-tonne machines used to excavate 4 km of T-8.
• Reduced environmental impact and improved excavation speed.

New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM)

• Used for remaining 4.11 km of the tunnel.
• Ideal for unpredictable geological conditions of the Himalayas.
• Allows flexible design adaptation during excavation.

Advanced Monitoring & Prediction Systems

• Tunnel Seismic Prediction (TSP): Assesses rock conditions ahead of excavation.
• Torque Box System: Supports multi-directional boring in curved tunnel segments.
• Void Measurement: Detects underground gaps or cavities to prevent collapses.

Why T-8 is an Engineering Marvel

• High-altitude construction through fragile Himalayan geology.
• Integration of machine learning and sensor-based monitoring.
• Minimizes ecological footprint through underground routing.

Summary:

The Rishikesh-Karnaprayag Tunnel T-8, stretching 14.57 km, is poised to be India’s longest railway tunnel, surpassing all previous rail tunnel records. Constructed as part of a strategic broad gauge project in Uttarakhand, it showcases advanced engineering practices including TBMs, NATM, and real-time monitoring technologies like TSP and Void Measurement. Covering five Himalayan districts, it drastically reduces travel time and enhances connectivity and disaster resilience. It’s a landmark in Indian railway engineering, combining infrastructure innovation with regional development.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims :

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Rishikesh-Karnaprayag Tunnel T-8:
1.It is India’s longest railway tunnel, constructed using only the New Austrian Tunnelling Method.
2.It is the first railway tunnel project in India to use Tunnel Boring Machines (TBMs) in the Himalayas.
3.It connects Rishikesh with the Badrinath temple directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B. 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect – NATM was used partially, not exclusively.
• Statement 3 is incorrect – The tunnel is part of a link to Karnaprayag, not directly to Badrinath.

2. The term “Void Measurement” in tunneling technology is best associated with:
A. Measurement of air pressure in pressurized tunnels
B. Detection of underground cavities to ensure tunnel stability
C. Estimation of passenger traffic volume
D. Calculating fuel efficiency of tunnel boring machines

Answer: B. Detection of underground cavities to ensure tunnel stability

Mains :

1. The construction of the Rishikesh-Karnaprayag Tunnel T-8 marks a turning point in India’s tunneling technology. Discuss its technological and strategic significance in the context of Himalayan infrastructure development. (250 words)

2. Evaluate the role of technological innovation in overcoming the challenges of infrastructure development in geologically sensitive zones, with reference to the Rishikesh-Karnaprayag rail project. (250 words)