24th October 2025 – Current Affairs

1. A Path for a Battered and Broken Himachal Pradesh – Environment

Why in News?

The Supreme Court of India has expressed grave concerns over the environmental degradation in Himachal Pradesh, especially in the context of infrastructure and hydropower projects.
The court emphasized that “revenue generation cannot come at the cost of ecological destruction.”
This signals a call for deep environmental reform and scientific governance in the Himalayan state.

Key Environmental Concerns in Himachal Pradesh

1. Hydropower Projects – Green or Grim?

• Touted as clean energy, but in practice:

  • River flow disruption

  • Landslides and slope destabilization

  • Threats to aquatic biodiversity

• Projects often lack comprehensive cumulative impact assessments.

• River systems are viewed as energy resources, not living ecosystems.

2. Unscientific Infrastructure Development

• Projects like the Bilaspur–Manali–Leh Highway are being implemented without adequate attention to:

  • Slope stability

  • Geological surveys

  • Landslide vulnerability

• Guidelines ignored, resulting in irreversible ecological damage.

Policy vs Practice Gap

• Himachal Pradesh is known for progressive environmental policies on paper.

• However, implementation is often compliance-oriented (tick-box), not impact-oriented.

• EIA processes are diluted; local voices often excluded.

• Institutions like Aryabhatta Geo-Informatics & Space Application Centre (AGiSAC) are underutilized in planning and monitoring.

Need for Scientific Environmental Governance

Broader Context: Development vs Sustainability Dilemma

• Himachal’s crisis is a microcosm of India’s ecological challenges in hill states:

  • Uttarakhand (Joshimath), Sikkim (glacier floods), J&K (flash floods)

• The Supreme Court’s intervention could:

  • Set a legal precedent for balancing ecology with economy

  • Spur reform in environmental clearance processes and accountability mechanisms

What Himachal Needs: A Sustainable Way Forward

1. Strengthen EIA Process: Move from generic checklists to scientific, location-specific EIAs.

2. Promote Low-Impact Tourism: Eco-tourism, local homestays, and capped visitor flows.

3. Disaster-Resilient Infrastructure: Geologically sound designs, slope stabilization tech.

4. Empower Local Governance: Role of panchayats, citizen monitoring, and public hearings.

5. Mainstream Scientific Tools: Fully integrate AGiSAC and similar institutes in planning.

6. Recognize Himalayas as Ecological Assets, not just sources of revenue.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. The Aryabhatta Geo-Informatics & Space Application Centre (AGiSAC) in Himachal Pradesh is primarily associated with:
A. Space exploration
B. Weather forecasting
C. Geo-spatial planning and monitoring
D. Rural education development
Answer:  C. Geo-spatial planning and monitoring

2. Which of the following are likely environmental impacts of run-of-the-river hydropower projects in Himalayan states?
1.River flow alteration
2.Biodiversity loss
3.Soil erosion and landslides
4.Increase in glacial melt
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer:  A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Mains

1. “In ecologically fragile states like Himachal Pradesh, development must be informed by science, not politics.” Critically examine this statement in light of recent judicial concerns about environmental governance.

2. Himachal Pradesh has progressive environmental policies, yet faces severe ecological challenges. Discuss the gap between policy and practice and suggest ways to improve environmental governance in the state.

2. Nutrition Needs Nuance: Rethinking Diets, Markets & Agricultural Priorities – Economy

Why in News?

The long-standing claim that India’s dietary and health challenges are mainly caused by high carbohydrate consumption is being challenged. New evidence suggests a need for greater nuance in how we understand nutrition, food systems, and agricultural planning, especially in relation to markets, rural diets, and health outcomes.

Understanding the Indian Dietary Landscape

Carbohydrate Dominance – But the Story Is Complex

• The Indian diet traditionally emphasizes rice, roti, and cereals, contributing to:

  • Macronutrient imbalance (high carbs, low protein/fat)

  • Health concerns like Type-2 diabetes, obesity, and metabolic syndrome
    
    However, blaming carbohydrates alone ignores contextual factors such as:

• Physical activity levels

• Food access and affordability

• Cultural dietary diversity

Cereal Consumption Trends (1993–94 to 2023–24)

• Despite reduced cereal intake, total caloric intake has risen, driven by:

  • Processed foods

  • Sugary drinks

  • Refined oils and fats

Public Health Context

• Over 61% of Indians exhibit risk factors linked to metabolic syndrome.

• Rural and urban populations are both vulnerable to:

  • Micronutrient deficiencies

  • Hidden hunger (lack of vitamins and minerals despite caloric sufficiency)

  • Rise in non-communicable diseases (NCDs) due to dietary transitions

Problems with Flawed Nutrition Narratives

Role of Agriculture & Markets in Shaping Diets

• Farm production patterns often follow MSP incentives, not nutritional needs.

• Public Distribution System (PDS) reinforces cereal-centric consumption.

• Lack of access to affordable vegetables, pulses, and proteins in rural markets.

• Urban poor often rely on cheap calorie-rich, nutrient-poor foods.

The Way Forward: A Holistic Nutrition Strategy

1. Nutrition-Sensitive Agriculture

• Diversify crops: Include millets, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables.

• Link MSP and procurement to nutritional outcomes, not just calories.

2. Contextual Nutrition Education

• Move away from one-size-fits-all dietary advice.

• Respect cultural food systems, regional cuisines, and local food wisdom.

3. Health Integration

• Strengthen Ayushman Bharat’s preventive health component.

• Include nutritional counselling and community-based awareness campaigns.

4. Market Access & Affordability

• Strengthen value chains for non-cereal crops.

• Improve distribution and pricing for fruits, vegetables, and animal proteins.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. Which of the following best describes the term “Hidden Hunger”?
A. Excess calorie intake despite physical activity
B. Deficiency of micronutrients despite adequate calorie intake
C. Lack of access to food during the night
D. Underweight due to low protein intake
Answer:  B. Deficiency of micronutrients despite adequate calorie intake

2. According to recent trends, per capita monthly cereal consumption in India has:
A. Increased in both rural and urban areas
B. Decreased in both rural and urban areas
C. Increased in rural and decreased in urban areas
D. Remained constant since 1993
Answer:  B. Decreased in both rural and urban areas

Mains 

1. “India’s nutrition crisis is not just about hunger but about imbalance and misinformation.” Critically examine how agricultural policy, market access, and health narratives must evolve for better nutritional outcomes.

2. Discuss the need for a nutrition-sensitive food system in India. How can integrating agriculture, education, and public health improve long-term dietary outcomes?

3. EPFO and the Erosion of Retirement Savings – Economy 

Why in News?

The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is introducing new withdrawal rules, including a 25% minimum balance requirement, after data revealed that most members are withdrawing funds prematurely—significantly reducing their retirement corpus.

• Nearly half of EPFO members have less than ₹20,000 at the time of final settlement.

• The move aims to preserve long-term savings and improve retirement security for millions of workers.

About EPFO

• EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

• It administers:

  • Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF)

  • Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS)

  • Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI)

• It is one of the world’s largest social security organizations, covering over 6 crore active members.

Key Data Insights (2024–25)

Problem: Premature Withdrawals Undermining Retirement Security

Key Concerns:

1. Small Retirement Corpus
   → Majority of members retire with insufficient savings, leading to financial insecurity.

2. Frequent Withdrawals During Employment
   → Depletes the power of compounding interest.

3. Post-Job Withdrawals
   → Most withdrawals happen immediately after job loss, not at retirement.

4. Rejoining Workforce After Withdrawal
   → Workers often resettle in EPFO after withdrawing previous funds—indicating EPF is used as a liquidity tool, not for long-term savings.

EPFO’s New Withdrawal Norms (2025)

Policy Reforms Introduced

Policy Significance and Economic Implications

Positive Outcomes:

• Encourages retirement-oriented saving behaviour.

• Reduces long-term pension stress on the government.

• Helps create stable, long-duration funds in the formal financial system.

Concerns & Criticisms:

• May restrict access to savings for low-income workers in real need.

• Without social safety nets, workers will continue using EPF for short-term survival.

• Workers earning ≤ ₹15,000/month may struggle to comply with the 25% retention rule.

Way Forward

1. Integrate EPF with Emergency Credit Support
   – Link EPFO with low-interest short-term credit during job loss.

2. Financial Literacy Campaigns
   – Teach members about compounding, retirement planning, and pension adequacy.

3. Strengthen Other Social Security Nets
   – Expand coverage of Atal Pension Yojana (APY) and E-Shram Portal.

4. Link Withdrawals with Employment Records
   – Prevent abuse of the system via fake job-loss claims or quick re-registrations.

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) functions under which of the following ministries?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Labour and Employment
C. Ministry of Social Justice
D. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer:  B. Ministry of Labour and Employment

2. In the latest EPFO reforms, a new rule mandates that at least what percentage of the provident fund balance must be retained after a withdrawal?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Answer:  C. 25%

Mains

1. “The Employees’ Provident Fund is being used more as a survival tool than a retirement scheme.” Examine the factors behind rising premature withdrawals from EPF accounts and assess the implications for India’s social security system.

2. Discuss recent reforms undertaken by the EPFO to curb premature withdrawals. Suggest further measures to balance immediate worker needs with long-term retirement security.

4. Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) India Scheme – Economy

Why in News?

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has recently recognized India’s Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) programme for its significant role in boosting MSME participation in global trade.
The AEO scheme, administered by CBIC, is being praised as a model for trade security, simplification, and customs-business partnership in developing countries.

What is the AEO Scheme?

Launched By:

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2011

Nature:

Voluntary certification program for Indian businesses involved in international trade (import/export/logistics).

Objective:

• To enhance international supply chain security

• To facilitate faster, smoother customs clearance for compliant, trusted entities

• To promote ease of doing business in global trade

How the AEO Scheme Works

Customs–Trader Partnership

• CBIC certifies businesses that demonstrate strong compliance with:

  • Customs regulations

  • Financial solvency

  • Supply chain security

• In return, these businesses get preferential treatment at ports and customs checkpoints.

AEO Certification Tiers

International Context

WCO SAFE Framework (2005)

• Developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO)

• Promotes global customs cooperation, supply chain security, and trade facilitation

• AEO schemes globally follow this model

Global Adoption

• Over 90 countries now have AEO programs

• Countries sign Mutual Recognition Arrangements (MRAs) to accept each other’s AEOs

• India’s scheme is fully aligned with WCO standards

India’s AEO Scheme – Significance

For Traders/MSMEs:

• Reduced time & cost at ports and borders

• Enhanced global credibility

• Faster cargo movement → improved competitiveness

For Customs & Government:

• Better compliance monitoring

• Efficient use of resources by focusing on high-risk shipments

• Builds trust-based ecosystem between regulators and trade

For MSMEs:

• Simplifies complex procedures

• Encourages entry into export markets

• Aligns with Make in India and Export Promotion goals

Challenges

• Awareness gap among small traders and logistics players

• Complex documentation for higher-tier certifications

• Need for faster processing of AEO applications

• Limited MRAs — need more bilateral recognitions

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. The Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Scheme in India is implemented by:
A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B. NITI Aayog
C. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
D. Reserve Bank of India
Answer:  C. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs

2. Which of the following is not a benefit of AEO certification in India?
A. Faster customs clearance
B. Waiver of port charges
C. Deferred payment of customs duty
D. Direct port delivery of consignments
Answer:  B. Waiver of port charges

Mains

1. “India’s AEO programme marks a shift from control-based to trust-based trade facilitation.” Examine the features and significance of the AEO scheme in enhancing India’s global trade competitiveness.

2. Discuss how the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) scheme can help Indian MSMEs integrate into global value chains. What policy measures are needed to improve its accessibility and impact?

5. New Safeguards in Government’s Online Content Blocking Rules – Polity

Why in News?

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has introduced amendments to online content blocking rules, effective November 15, aimed at increasing accountability, uniformity, and due process under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
This comes after growing concerns over arbitrary takedown orders, including legal challenges by platforms such as X (formerly Twitter).

Legal Framework: Section 79(3)(b), IT Act, 2000

• Under Section 79, intermediaries (social media, platforms, ISPs) are generally not liable for user content.

• But Section 79(3)(b) empowers the government to direct intermediaries to remove content deemed unlawful.

• These powers were previously criticized for being vague and prone to misuse by junior-level officers.

Key Amendments Introduced (Effective Nov 15, 2025)

1. Designated Authority

• Only senior officers may issue content removal/blocking orders:

  • Joint Secretary or equivalent (Centre or States)

  • Director-level officer, if no Joint Secretary exists

  • Deputy Inspector General (DIG) or above in police departments (if authorised)

2. Template & Format for Orders

• A standard template for content removal orders will be used.

• Each order must clearly state:

  • Statutory basis

  • Nature of the unlawful act

  • Exact URL or content location

  • Justification for the order

3. Periodic Review

• All blocking orders will be reviewed monthly by an officer not below the rank of Secretary.

Why Were These Changes Needed?

Significance of the Reform

Strengthens Due Process

• Limits executive discretion through rank-based checks

• Ensures that takedown actions are backed by clear legal reasoning

Balances Rights

• Protects freedom of expression (Article 19(1)(a)) while ensuring compliance with reasonable restrictions (Article 19(2))

Promotes Trust in Governance

• Reduces legal uncertainty for intermediaries

• Encourages better compliance and transparency

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. Under which section of the IT Act, 2000, can the government direct intermediaries to remove or block content?
A. Section 66A
B. Section 79(3)(b)
C. Section 69A
D. Section 81
Answer:  B. Section 79(3)(b)

2. Which of the following officers are now authorized to issue content removal notices under the revised content blocking rules (2025)?
1.Sub-Inspector of Police
2.Joint Secretary
3.Deputy Inspector General (DIG)
4.Director-level officers in absence of Joint Secretary
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:  C. 2, 3 and 4 only

Mains

1. “Online content regulation must balance state interests with constitutional freedoms.” Critically examine the 2025 amendments to India’s content blocking rules in this context.

2. Discuss the role of senior bureaucratic oversight in digital governance. How can standardization and review mechanisms improve transparency in content takedown procedures?

6. Atomic Stencilling: Crafting Designer Nanoparticles with Precision – Science & Technology

Why in News?

Scientists from the United States and South Korea have developed a novel nanofabrication technique called “atomic stencilling”, which enables the precise coating of gold nanoparticles with polymer patches.
This innovation offers unprecedented control over nanoscale material design, with significant implications for medicine, electronics, and energy.

What Is Atomic Stencilling?

• Definition:
  A nanotechnology technique that uses iodide atoms as atomic-scale stencils to create functional polymer patches on nanoparticles.

• Purpose:
  To “paint” or pattern nanoparticles with atomic-level precision, enabling custom shape, size, and surface chemistry.

How It Works

1. Gold nanoparticles are used as base material.

2. Iodide atoms act as nanoscale masks, covering selective regions.

3. Polymers are then applied to exposed regions.

4. Result: Nanoparticles with distinct functional patches, or “zones.”

Key Advantages of Atomic Stencilling

Key Applications

1. Targeted Drug Delivery

• Functional zones allow precise receptor targeting and controlled release.

• Reduces side effects and increases drug efficacy.

2. Catalysis

• Surface domains can be chemically tailored to boost reaction specificity and speed.

3. Optoelectronics & Photonics

• Ideal for plasmonic devices, light-controlled switches, and metamaterials.

4. Energy Systems

• Enhances charge transfer and material stability in solar cells, batteries, and fuel cells.

5. Smart Materials

• Enables creation of programmable, self-assembling nanostructures for adaptive tech.

Significance for India

• Can support India’s goals in:

  • Precision medicine (Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission)

  • Clean energy innovation (Green Hydrogen Mission)

  • Advanced manufacturing (PLI schemes for electronics & pharma)

• Boosts Make in India through integration into biotech, semiconductor, and energy sectors

Exam Connect – Possible Questions

Prelims

1. The “atomic stencilling” technique recently developed by researchers is used for:
A. Creating nuclear fuel rods
B. Designing genetically modified crops
C. Patterning nanoparticles with atomic precision
D. Mapping atomic weights in molecules
Answer:  C. Patterning nanoparticles with atomic precision

2. Which of the following is not a direct application of atomic stencilling?
A. Targeted drug delivery
B. Quantum entanglement testing
C. Catalysis
D. Optoelectronic device manufacturing
Answer:  B. Quantum entanglement testing

Mains 

1. “Atomic-level control over materials opens new frontiers in science and technology.” Discuss the concept of atomic stencilling and evaluate its potential applications in health, energy, and smart materials.

2. Examine the role of nanotechnology in enabling precision-driven innovations in fields like medicine, energy, and manufacturing. How can India leverage such technologies for inclusive development?