1. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), 2024 – Economy
Why in News?
The Annual Report of the PLFS 2024 (covering Jan–Dec 2024) was released on April 8, 2025 by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
This report serves as a critical data source for employment trends across rural and urban India.
What is PLFS?
The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) was launched by MoSPI in 2017 to replace the earlier Employment-Unemployment Survey.
It provides quarterly data for urban areas and annual data for rural and combined regions.
Key Objectives of PLFS
- Estimate Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR).
- Provide short-term and long-term labour trends through Current Weekly Status (CWS) and Usual Status (ps+ss).
- Monitor urban-rural labour market differences.
Key Indicators
| Indicator | Definition | Interpretation |
|---|---|---|
| LFPR (Labour Force Participation Rate) | % of working-age population (15+) that is working or seeking work | Indicates economic activity participation |
| WPR (Worker Population Ratio) | % of population that is employed | Measures employment intensity |
| UR (Unemployment Rate) | % of labour force that is not employed but is actively seeking work | Tracks job availability & unemployment pressure |
| CWS (Current Weekly Status) | Measures activity over past 7 days | Reflects short-term employment fluctuations |
| Usual Status (ps+ss) | Activity over 365 days, including subsidiary work | Captures long-term and seasonal employment |
PLFS 2024 Highlights
| Metric | Trend | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| LFPR (National) | Slight decline | Despite increase among males, overall rate dipped |
| WPR | Slight decline nationally | Indicates stagnation in job creation |
| UR (Rural + Urban) | Marginal decrease for females | Suggests improvement in women’s employment |
| Urban CWS Data | Steady | But urban youth unemployment remains a concern |
Observations & Analysis
Positive Trends:
- Female rural employment has slightly improved.
- Male participation rates remain strong in both rural and urban areas.
- There is greater reporting of self-employment and informal work.
Concerns:
- Overall LFPR and WPR declining despite economic growth.
- Youth unemployment remains high, especially in urban settings.
- Low formal sector job creation vs. population growth.
Implications for Himachal Pradesh (HAS Focus)
- As a largely rural state, HP’s workforce is agriculture and tourism dependent.
- Seasonal employment is prominent—CWS becomes an important metric.
- High out-migration of skilled youth due to limited formal sector jobs.
- LFPR and WPR help assess effectiveness of skill development and employment programs in the state.
Prelims Pointers
- PLFS conducted by? → MoSPI (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation)
- Launched in? → 2017
- LFPR full form? → Labour Force Participation Rate
- CWS vs Usual Status? → 7-day vs. 365-day measurement
- LFPR is highest in which sector typically? → Rural males
Exam Connect – Possible Questions
Prelims:
Q1. Which of the following best describes the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)?
A. The percentage of working-age population that is unemployed
B. The percentage of total population that is employed
C. The percentage of working-age population that is either working or seeking work
D. The percentage of labour force working in the informal sector
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: LFPR measures the proportion of the working-age population (15 years and above) that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
Q2. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by which of the following?
A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
B. National Statistical Office (NSO), under MoSPI
C. NITI Aayog
D. Labour Bureau
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Q3. In the context of employment measurement, the Current Weekly Status (CWS) in PLFS refers to:
A. The usual principal activity status of a person over the last year
B. The employment status during the past week
C. The permanent status of employment in a government job
D. A classification of part-time workers only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: CWS identifies the activity status of a person based on the preceding 7 days, giving a short-term employment picture.
Q4. Which of the following indicators are used in PLFS?
- Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
- Worker Population Ratio (WPR)
- Unemployment Rate (UR)
- Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PLFS tracks labour-related indicators like LFPR, WPR, and UR — not macroeconomic indicators like GDP.
Q5. Which of the following is true about the Worker Population Ratio (WPR)?
A. It measures the percentage of employed people in the labour force
B. It includes only those employed in the formal sector
C. It measures the proportion of employed individuals in the total population
D. It includes only government workers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: WPR is the proportion of persons employed among the total population (usually aged 15+), regardless of the type of employment.
Mains:
Q. “The Periodic Labour Force Survey is essential to understanding India’s employment challenges. Examine recent trends from the 2024 report and suggest measures to improve labour force participation, particularly among youth and women.”
(250 words)
Takeaway
The PLFS 2024 reveals persistent structural issues in India’s labour market, such as low female participation, high youth unemployment, and informal job dependency. These insights are crucial for policy planning and provide key data points for HAS mains answers on employment, economic development, and gender inclusion.
2. The Crisis of Constitutional Discretion – Governor’s Role in India’s Federal Framework – Polity
Why in News?
- The Supreme Court (SC) delivered a landmark judgment (March 2024) criticizing Tamil Nadu Governor R.N. Ravi for delaying assent to state bills, calling such inaction unconstitutional.
- The verdict seeks to strengthen the federal structure, clarify the constitutional limits of the Governor, and ensure democratic accountability.
Key Constitutional Provisions
| Article | Provision |
|---|---|
| Art. 200 | Governor’s powers regarding state bills – assent, withhold, return (if not a money bill), or reserve for President. |
| Art. 201 | If reserved, President can assent, withhold, or return the bill. |
| Art. 142 | SC can pass any decree necessary to ensure “complete justice” in any matter. |
Governor’s Options Under Article 200
Once a Bill is passed by a State Legislature, the Governor can:
- Assent → The bill becomes law.
- Withhold Assent → A kind of veto (rarely used).
- Return → For reconsideration (if not a money bill).
- Reserve for the President → For specific matters (e.g., affecting High Court powers, conflict with Union law).
Note: No express time limit is prescribed in Article 200 — this was the source of recent controversy.
Supreme Court Ruling – March 2024
Background
- TN Government challenged the Governor’s delay on 12 bills, some pending since 2020.
- On Nov 13, 2023, Governor withheld assent to 10 bills — all were re-enacted by the Assembly.
Key Rulings by SC
| Issue | Supreme Court’s Verdict |
|---|---|
| Governor’s Delay | Unconstitutional. No indefinite inaction. |
| Discretion of Governor | Not absolute. Must act on Council of Ministers’ advice. |
| Reservation of Bills | Must be used sparingly, not to block legislation. |
| Re-passed Bills | Must assent within 1 month; cannot re-reserve unless materially changed. |
| Judicial Oversight | SC can intervene under Art. 142 for “complete justice.” |
New SC-Imposed Timelines (March 2024)
| Stage | Time Limit |
|---|---|
| Governor to assent/withhold/reserve a bill | Within 1 month of receiving the bill |
| If returned & re-passed by Assembly | Governor must assent within 1 month |
| If withheld without CoM advice | Must return within 3 months |
Why This Matters – Relevance for Polity & Governance
For Federalism:
- Prevents Governor overreach & political misuse of the office.
- Safeguards legislative authority of elected state governments.
For Good Governance:
- Reduces policy paralysis caused by gubernatorial inaction.
- Strengthens transparency, accountability, and institutional balance.
Constituent Assembly Debates – Historical Perspective
| Thinker | Viewpoint |
|---|---|
| B.R. Ambedkar | Favoured a nominated Governor – symbolic head, bound by CoM. |
| K.T. Shah | Advocated for elected Governor to ensure federal balance. |
| Sardar Patel | Preferred a neutral, nominated Governor, to avoid CM-Governor clashes. |
Why Nominated Governor Won?
→ To maintain impartiality, avoid dual power centres, and prevent politicization.
Issues with Current Governor Functioning
- Politically motivated delays in assenting to bills.
- Non-neutral conduct during formation of state governments (e.g., Maharashtra, Karnataka).
- Use of Article 356 (President’s Rule) based on Governor’s report – often controversial.
Implications for Cooperative Federalism
- Upholds the spirit of federalism.
- Reasserts legislative sovereignty of states.
- Encourages neutral functioning of constitutional offices.
- Empowers judiciary to prevent misuse of discretion.
Relevant Prelims Pointers
| Point | Fact |
|---|---|
| Article 200 | Deals with Governor’s actions on state bills |
| Article 201 | President’s power over reserved bills |
| Article 142 | SC’s power to ensure complete justice |
| Office of Governor | Mentioned in Part VI of Constitution |
| First SC ruling on time-limits | March 2024, Tamil Nadu case |
| Appointed By | President, under Article 155 |
| Term | 5 years (not fixed, can be removed earlier) |
Exam Connect – Possible Questions
Prelims:
Q1. Article 200 of the Constitution deals with:
A. Powers of President on Union Bills
B. Powers of Governor regarding State Bills
C. Emergency Provisions
D. Special Status to Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: B
Q2. Which of the following is true about the Governor’s powers regarding bills?
- The Governor can reserve any bill for President’s consideration.
- The Governor can delay action on a bill for an indefinite time.
- Once a bill is re-passed by the Assembly, the Governor must grant assent within a specific time.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: Indefinite delay is now held unconstitutional by SC.
Q3. Who among the following advocated for an elected Governor during Constituent Assembly debates?
A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Sardar Patel
C. K.T. Shah
D. B.N. Rau
Answer: C
Mains:
Q. “Judicial intervention in the constitutional functioning of Governors reasserts the principles of cooperative federalism.” Examine this statement in the light of the recent SC ruling on delay in assent to bills by Governors.
(250 words)
Conclusion
The Supreme Court’s 2024 ruling is a landmark in reinforcing constitutional propriety, federalism, and good governance. It sets clear limits on Governor’s discretion and promotes timely, transparent, and accountable law-making in India’s states.
3. Akash Air Defence Missile System – Defence & Security
Why in News?
India has offered the Akash missile system to the United Arab Emirates (UAE), signaling its emergence as a credible global player in the defence export market.
What is Akash Missile System?
- Type: Short-range surface-to-air missile (SAM)
- Purpose: Designed to intercept and destroy aerial targets like fighter jets, drones, cruise missiles, and helicopters.
- Indigenous Development:
- Developed by DRDO (Defence Research & Development Organisation)
- Manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
- Radar developed by BEL (Bharat Electronics Limited)
Timeline of Deployment
| Year | Milestone |
|---|---|
| 2014 | Inducted into Indian Air Force |
| 2015 | Inducted into Indian Army |
| 2022 | Armenia became the first foreign buyer of Akash |
| 2025 | India offers Akash system to UAE |
Technical Specifications
| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Length | 5.8 metres |
| Diameter | 350 mm |
| Wingspan | 1,105 mm |
| Range | 4.5 km to 25 km |
| Altitude Range | 100 m to 20 km |
| Speed | Supersonic (up to Mach 2.5) |
| Warhead | 60 kg high explosive, proximity-fused |
| Guidance | Command Guidance via Ground-based Radar |
| Radar | Rajendra Phased Array Radar (Tracks >60 targets) |
| Mode | Group Mode / Autonomous Mode |
| Mobility | Fully mobile, truck-mounted system |
| ECCM Capability | Built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures for anti-jamming |
| Open Architecture | Easily upgradable for future threats |
Strategic Features
- Multiple Target Engagement: Can simultaneously track and destroy multiple airborne targets.
- All-weather, All-terrain Deployment: Suitable for India’s diverse geography.
- Indigenisation: 96% indigenous content in Akash 1S (upgraded version).
- Export Potential: Offers to countries in Africa, ASEAN, and West Asia reflect India’s Make in India in Defence success.
India’s Defence Diplomacy & Akash Exports
| Country | Status |
|---|---|
| Armenia | First confirmed buyer |
| UAE | Offer made in 2025 |
| Others | Vietnam, Philippines, and African nations have shown interest |
Akash forms part of India’s broader goal to become a net defence exporter, reducing dependence on imports.
Comparison: Akash vs S-400 (Russia)
| Parameter | Akash | S-400 |
|---|---|---|
| Range | 25 km | 400 km |
| Mobility | High | High |
| Cost | Low to Medium | High |
| Purpose | Tactical SAM | Long-range strategic SAM |
| Indigenous | Yes | No (Russian import) |
Other DRDO Indigenous Missile Systems
| System | Type |
|---|---|
| Nag | Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) |
| Astra | Air-to-Air Missile |
| Agni Series | Strategic Ballistic Missiles |
| Prithvi Series | Tactical Ballistic Missiles |
| BrahMos | Supersonic Cruise Missile (Joint with Russia) |
Prelims Pointers
- Akash is a surface-to-air missile, not a ballistic or cruise missile.
- Uses command guidance with Rajendra radar.
- It is fully indigenous and deployed by both Army and Air Force.
- Features open system architecture, allowing upgradation.
- It includes Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) for resisting jamming.
- Armenia: First foreign buyer of the Akash system.
- UAE: Latest country offered the system (2025).
Exam Connect – Possible Questions
Prelims:
Q1. Akash is:
A. Long-range ballistic missile
B. Cruise missile
C. Short-range surface-to-air missile
D. Intercontinental ballistic missile
Answer: C
Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Akash Missile System?
- It uses radar-based command guidance.
- It can engage targets at altitudes over 100 km.
- It was developed by DRDO.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Akash can engage targets up to 20 km altitude, not 100 km.
Q3. Consider the following pairs:
| Missile System | Category |
|---|---|
| Nag | Anti-Tank Guided Missile |
| Akash | Surface-to-Air Missile |
| BrahMos | Subsonic Cruise Missile |
Which of the above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: BrahMos is supersonic, not subsonic.
Mains:
Q. “Discuss the significance of India’s Akash missile system in enhancing national security and promoting defence exports under the Make in India initiative.” (250 words)
Conclusion
The Akash missile system represents India’s technological self-reliance in the defence sector. With strong export potential and proven battlefield capability, it is a critical element of India’s air defence architecture and diplomatic outreach.
4. Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 – Polity
Why in News?
- The Indian Parliament passed the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 in April.
- The Bill seeks to align India’s aviation leasing laws with international standards under the Cape Town Convention.
- It aims to improve investor confidence in India’s aviation sector by ensuring timely recovery of aircraft assets during defaults or insolvency.
Background & Context
- India ratified the Cape Town Convention (CTC) in 2008, which provides international legal standards for aircraft leasing and asset recovery.
- However, no enabling legislation existed until now, limiting enforceability.
- Cases like Kingfisher Airlines, Jet Airways, and most recently Go First, highlighted the vulnerability of aircraft lessors in India.
- Lessors were unable to repossess aircraft swiftly due to complex insolvency procedures.
Key Features of the Bill
| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Scope | Applies to civil aircraft, aircraft engines, and related aviation objects. |
| DGCA as Registry Authority | The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) will maintain a national registry of interests in aircraft, fulfilling international obligations. |
| Repossession Rights | Lessors can repossess aircraft within 2 months of default, bypassing prolonged litigation. |
| Dispute Resolution Timelines | Sets strict timelines for dispute resolution, enhancing legal certainty for lessors and lessees. |
| Supremacy over Other Laws | Provisions override conflicting clauses in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) or Companies Act, ensuring creditor rights. |
| Implementation of Cape Town Convention | Gives domestic legal backing to the CTC and the Aircraft Protocol, enabling full enforcement of rights under these treaties. |
Legal and Economic Significance
For Lessors (Investors):
- Strengthens legal remedies.
- Reduces risk premium and makes India more attractive for leasing aircraft.
- Could lower leasing costs by 8–10%, potentially reducing airfares.
For Airlines:
- Easier and cheaper access to leased aircraft, especially for startups and regional carriers.
For India:
- Supports India’s ambition to become an aircraft leasing hub, especially in IFSC GIFT City (Gujarat).
- Enhances India’s Ease of Doing Business rank in aviation.
Cape Town Convention & Aircraft Protocol
| Item | Explanation |
|---|---|
| Cape Town Convention (2001) | International treaty to standardize leasing and financing of movable equipment (aircraft, engines, rail, etc.). |
| Aircraft Protocol | A specific protocol under the Convention for civil aviation objects. |
| Objective | Protect international financiers and lessors by guaranteeing asset recovery in case of debtor default. |
| India’s Status | Signed and ratified in 2008, but implementation through legislation came only in 2025. |
Industry Response
Welcomed by:
- Aircraft leasing companies
- Aviation investors
- Civil aviation authorities
Concerns:
- India’s tax structure for lease payments still remains complex and high.
- Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) used for leasing may face regulatory ambiguity.
- Coordination needed between DGCA, IBBI, and NCLT to avoid enforcement delays.
India’s Vision: Becoming an Aviation Hub
- India plans to shift leasing activity from foreign tax havens (e.g., Ireland, Dubai) to domestic hubs like IFSC GIFT City.
- The Bill is critical to achieving self-reliance in aircraft financing and leasing, reducing foreign outflows.
Prelims Pointers
- Cape Town Convention relates to: Aircraft Financing & Leasing
- DGCA is the national Registry Authority under the new Bill.
- India ratified the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but enacted the enabling law only in 2025.
- The law gives overriding power over the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) and Companies Act for aircraft object disputes.
- Aircraft lessors can repossess aircraft within 2 months of a default.
Exam Connect – Possible Questions
Prelims:
Q1. The Cape Town Convention, recently in news, is related to:
A. Regulation of international trade in endangered species
B. Civil liability for oil pollution
C. Aircraft leasing and asset protection
D. Protection of cultural property in armed conflict
Answer: C
Q2. Which of the following are provisions of the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025?
- It empowers the DGCA to maintain a national registry.
- It overrides the provisions of the IBC and Companies Act in case of leasing disputes.
- It permits repossession of aircraft by lessors within 6 months of default.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: Repossession is allowed within 2 months, not 6.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
- The Cape Town Convention is a UN treaty on climate-related aviation standards.
- India ratified the Cape Town Convention in 2025.
- The Aircraft Protocol under the Convention deals with civil aviation objects.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation: India ratified the Convention in 2008, not 2025. It is not related to climate, but to aviation leasing.
Mains:
Q. “India’s new legal framework under the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 marks a shift toward investor confidence and aviation sector reforms.” Discuss the significance and challenges associated with its implementation.
(250 words)
Conclusion
The Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 is a transformative step toward legal and financial stability in India’s aviation sector. By enhancing creditor rights, aligning with global treaties, and supporting domestic leasing infrastructure, the law sets the stage for India’s emergence as an aviation finance hub—provided regulatory clarity and taxation reforms follow suit.
5. Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme (2024-25) – Economy
Why in News?
- The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) has announced the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme.
- It aims to strengthen India’s capability to manufacture passive electronic components like resistors, capacitors, connectors, switches, etc.
- This comes in the backdrop of India’s increasing electronics exports and ambitions to become a global electronics manufacturing hub.
Objectives of the Scheme
| Goal | Description |
|---|---|
| Boost Indigenous Production | Focused on passive components, not covered under the Semiconductor Mission. |
| Attract Investments | Provide incentives to manufacturers investing in plants and machinery. |
| Reduce Import Dependency | India imports over 80% of its components—this scheme targets domestic substitution. |
| Enhance Export Capacity | Improve India’s footprint in global electronics supply chains. |
| Create Jobs | Generate high-skill employment in electronics manufacturing sector. |
Scope of Components Covered
| Category | Examples |
|---|---|
| Passive Components | Resistors, capacitors, inductors, relays, switches, sensors, connectors, antennas |
| Not Covered | Semiconductors and display fabs (covered under India Semiconductor Mission / Semicon India Program) |
Incentive Structure
The scheme runs for 6 years, including a 1-year gestation period, and offers 3 models of financial incentives:
| Incentive Type | Basis | Description |
|---|---|---|
| Capex-linked | Capital Expenditure | Incentive based on investment in plant, machinery, and infrastructure. |
| Turnover-linked | Revenue Generation | Incentive based on incremental sales. |
| Hybrid Model | Combo | Combines benefits of Capex and Turnover-linked support. |
Achievements in India’s Electronics Sector
| Metric | FY 2014–15 | FY 2023–24 |
|---|---|---|
| Electronics Production | ₹1.90 lakh crore | ₹9.52 lakh crore |
| Electronics Exports | ₹0.38 lakh crore | ₹2.41 lakh crore |
| CAGR (Production) | – | >17% |
| CAGR (Exports) | – | >20% |
- India is now the 2nd-largest mobile phone producer in the world.
Future Targets
- Electronics production target by 2026: USD 300 billion.
- Value Addition Goals: Increase domestic value addition to >35% in electronics manufacturing.
Other Key Government Schemes in Electronics Sector
| Scheme | Year | Objective |
|---|---|---|
| Make in India | 2014 | Boost domestic manufacturing and attract FDI |
| Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP) | 2017 | Localize manufacturing of mobile components |
| PLI Scheme – Electronics | 2020 | 3–6% incentive on incremental sales of goods |
| Semicon India Program | 2021 | ₹76,000 crore for semiconductors, fabs, ATMP units |
| SPECS (Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors) | 2021 | 25% incentive on capital expenditure |
Budgetary Support
| Year | Budget Allocation |
|---|---|
| FY 2024-25 | ₹5,747 crore |
| FY 2025-26 | ₹8,885 crore |
Exam Connect – Possible Questions
Prelims:
Q1. The Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme recently launched by the Government of India primarily focuses on:
A. Manufacturing of semiconductors and chipsets
B. Assembling of mobile phones
C. Production of passive electronic components
D. Electronics recycling and e-waste management
Answer: C
Explanation: The scheme specifically targets passive components like resistors, capacitors, switches, etc.
Q2. Which of the following components are considered passive electronic components?
- Resistors
- Transistors
- Capacitors
- Switches
Choose the correct option:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Transistors are active components; the rest are passive.
Q3. Which of the following schemes offers a 25% incentive on capital expenditure for manufacturing of electronic components?
A. PLI Scheme
B. India Semiconductor Mission
C. SPECS
D. Digital India Programme
Answer: C
Explanation: SPECS = Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors.
Mains:
Q. “India aspires to become a global electronics manufacturing hub. Discuss how the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme complements this vision and the challenges it seeks to overcome.”
(250 words)
Conclusion
The Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme is a crucial step toward making India self-reliant in the electronics value chain, reducing imports, and achieving a USD 300 billion electronics industry by 2026. By offering flexible incentive models and targeting passive components, the scheme fills a critical gap in India’s manufacturing ecosystem and complements broader industrial strategies like PLI and Semicon India.